Q. What is the point of saying Jesus quoted from the Septuagint version of the Hebrew Scriptures ? He didn’t quote from the “Apocrypha” so it doesn’t mean anything if He quoted from legitimate OT books. He still did not quote from the Apocrypha so why should they be in the Canon of Scripture?
A. The purpose of pointing out that Jesus quoted from and accepted the Septuagint version of the Hebrew Scriptures is for the very reason that that version CONTAINED the seven books disputed by Protestants.
But where does it say in scripture that the only acceptable books in the OT are those that Jesus quoted from? Please see my post on this very topic HERE
You will find several passages from the so called “apocrypha” that are definitely echoed in the NT.
If you read the whole post you will find that there are many other books accepted in the Protestant OT that Jesus and the apostles did NOT quote from.
And other pagan writings that they DID quote from.
So, I am afraid there is just no consistency for determining the Canon of Scripture using this hermenutic.
For more on the Canon click–>Five Myths about the Seven Books
http://www.envoymagazine.com/backissues/1.2/marapril_story2.html
Filed under: Sacred Scripture
