Q. “All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.” Paul to Timothy in (2) Timothy 3v16.
A. I love this verse but I am not sure why you have quoted it here.
Q. When I said: “how can the decrees or words of any man be infallible…?” I was not referring to scripture “for the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” (2Pet.1v21)
A. Would you say that these holy men spoke infallibly?
Q. If the Bible is the Word of God – then clearly it must be infallible.
A. An atheist would not say it is clearly infallible. It does not seem to be infallible when speaking about scientific things according to man’s knowledge of the universe now. We believe it is inerrant when it refers to faith and morals. I think we agree on this. This is the same way God makes the Pope infallible. He doesn’t make him infallible in everything, only in what is important about faith and morals. I wish you would read my post, Infallible?
Q. Also, it is a serious matter to interfere with scriptures – either to add to it or to take away from it, as we are reminded in Rev. 22v18&19.
A. Of course it is a serious matter to interfere with scriptures but I think you are interpreting Rev. incorrectly. But did you know that the Old Testament says the same thing.
Deuteronomy 4:2” You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you. Prov. 30:5 Every word of God is tested; He is a shield to those who take refuge in Him. 6 Do not add to His words Or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar.
And if you interpret these verses exactly like you are interpreting the passage in Revelation, then that would make the New Testament anathema, because it adds to the Old Testament scriptures.
Did you know Martin Luther removed seven books from the Old Testament? He also removed seven books from the New Testament that contradicted his theology but later returned the New Testament books. But Protestants are still missing seven Old Testament books from the Christian Bible used for 1500 years before Martin Luther.
Q. As for scriptures being written by “sinful men,” they were clearly not sinful, if they were “moved by the Holy Ghost.”
A. Do you believe that in order to write infallibly a man would have to be sinless? Don’t you think a person could be moved by the Holy Ghost to write infallibly without being immaculate? We do believe that the writers of scripture were empowered by God to write inerrantly?
We do not believe they had to be sinless in order to do this. We believe Jesus and Mary His mother were immaculate but neither of them wrote any of the scriptures.
So, you see, you DO believe that God is able to cause a man to be infallible, also. The only difference is that you limit this infallibility to the writing of scripture. We do not.
I see you also believe, along with us, that God is able to make a human being sinless. You believe that all the writers of scripture were sinless. We do not. We believe only Mary was immaculate.
Q. Psalm 1 reminds us that “the ungodly shall not stand in the judgement nor sinners in the congregation of the righteous.” Bfhu, those people you originally encountered before you adopted Catholicism would have preached a “sinning religion.” Nowhere in God’s Word have I ever encountered His servants being referred to as “sinners,” yet this term is now used extensively throughout the world.
A. That is true but I believe it is used in deference to the fact that even though we are Christian we still fall short and commit sin every day.
Proverbs 24:16 for though a righteous man falls seven times, he rises again, but the wicked are brought down by calamity.
Q. In Eph. 4v6 we read that there is “One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.” If Jesus plainly says: “Call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven,” (Matt. 23v9) then I must obey His commandment.
A. Then do you call your father, “father”? Also, let’s look at that passage in context.
Matt 23: 8 “But you are not to be called ‘Rabbi,‘ for you have only one Master and you are all brothers. 9 And do not call anyone on earth ‘father,’ for you have one Father, and he is in heaven. 10 Nor are you to be called ‘teacher,’ for you have one Teacher, the Christ.
Do you call teachers, “teacher”? Would you call a Jewish rabbi, “rabbi”? Please read this post: Call No Man Father
And you will see that Paul calls himself a spiritual father to those he begot to eternal life. And, even Jesus Himself calls a man Father, and He is NOT referring to God. Stephen calls men who were spiritual leaders, “fathers”. Therefore, the interpretation of this verse to condemn the Catholic practice of addressing our priests as “Father” must be incorrect. The Catholic Church is actually following scripture by calling the men who are used by God to beget children unto Eternal Life, Father.